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NEW QUESTION # 43
What oven class utilizes a special processing atmosphere to prevent the oxidation of the metal during the heating process?
- A. Class B
- B. Class C
- C. Class A
- D. Cass D
Answer: C
Explanation:
Class A ovens and furnaces are heat utilization equipment operating at approximately atmospheric pressure wherein there is a potential explosion or fire hazard that could be occasioned by the presence of flammable volatiles or combustible materials processed or heated in the furnace. Such flammable volatiles or combustible materials can, for instance, originate from any one of the following:
(a) Paints, powders, inks, and adhesives from finishing processes, such as dipped, coated, sprayed, and impregnated Materials (b) Substrate material.
(c) Wood, paper, and plastic pallets, spacers, or packaging materials
(d) Polymerization or other molecular rearrangements Potentially flammable materials, such as quench oil, water-borne finishes, cooling oil, or cooking oils, that present a hazard are ventilated according to Class A standards.
Class B ovens and furnaces are heat utilization equipment operating at approximately atmospheric pressure wherein there are no flammable volatiles or combustible materials being heated.
Class C ovens and furnaces are those in which there is a potential hazard due to a flammable or other special atmosphere being used for treatment of material in process. This type of furnace can use any type of heating system and includes a special atmosphere supply system(s). Also included in the Class C classification are integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
Class D furnaces are vacuum furnaces that operate at temperatures that exceed ambient to over
5000 XF (2760 XC) and at
pressures from vacuum to several atmospheres during heating using any type of heating system. These furnaces can include the use of special processing atmospheres. During gas quenching, these furnaces may operate at pressures from below atmospheric to over a gauge pressure of 100 psi (690 kPag).
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following types of codes are based on a broad spectrum of accepted fire prevention experience?
- A. Locally-developed specific codes
- B. Nationally-developed consensus codes
- C. Experience-based codes
- D. Spectrum-based codes
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following are secondary braking systems for fire apparatus?
I) Drive line
II) Exhaust brake
III) Hydraulic retarder
IV) Pneumatic in-line
- A. II, III, and IV
- B. I, II and III
- C. I and IV
- D. III and IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
The upcoming (1996) edition of NFPA 1901, Pumper Fire Apparatus, if approved by the organization, will recommend a secondary braking device on apparatus weighing more than
31,000 pounds and require it on units exceeding 36,000 pounds.
Secondary braking devices in the forms of transmission retarders, driveline retarders, and engine brakes, when activated by the driver, apply a retarding force to the vehicle`s drive wheels without the use of friction. These auxiliary braking devices increase safety as well as economy when used properly.
The foundation or friction brakes on an apparatus were designed to fulfill two main requirements--to maintain the vehicle in a stationary position for indefinite periods of time when the parking brake is applied and to bring the apparatus to a standstill in the shortest possible distance without loss of control such as is experienced in a panic stop condition.
The braking duty cycle of fire apparatus on a response is such that the vehicle is accelerated and braked in rapid succession. The friction involved in braking causes heat to rapidly build up in the brake block and drums. This excessive heat can cause a major loss of efficiency in the braking system by affecting the friction surface of the brakes and expanding the drums. Some estimate that brakes that heat to over 520 degrees lose 60 percent of their efficiency. This, of course, increases stopping distance dramatically. On a long downgrade, this results in brake fade. Disc brakes are somewhat less prone to fading, as they dissipate heat better than drum brakes.
Some secondary braking devices provide up to 85 percent of the vehicle`s deceleration prior to the service brake engagement. By keeping the friction brakes cool, they are ready to respond to panic stop conditions, and stopping distances are greatly reduced.
An additional benefit is the reduction of downtime for brake maintenance. Many high-use emergency vehicles require frequent brake lining changes due to premature wear. Using auxiliary braking devices increases lining life by decreasing brake temperatures. The savings on brake maintenance can provide a substantial return on an investment in an engine brake or retarder.
NEW QUESTION # 46
When conducting a needs assessment for a fire department, what term describes the level of harm associated with exposure to a fire or its effluent?
- A. Strategic Plan
- B. Hazard Analysis
- C. Risk
- D. Hazard
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following heat transfer values is relevant to fire protection because it defines the quantity of heat must be removed to cool a burning solid below its firepoint?
- A. Heat density
- B. British thermal unit
- C. Latent heat
- D. Specific heat
Answer: A
Explanation:
(Review)
Heat transfer
An understanding of heat (or energy) transfer is the key to an understanding of fire behaviour and fire processes. The subject deserves careful study. There are many excellent texts to which one may turn (Welty, Wilson and Wicks 1976; DiNenno 1988), but for the present purposes it is necessary only to draw attention to the three mechanisms: conduction, convection and radiation.
The basic equations for steady-state heat transfer ( ) are:
Conduction:
Convection:
Radiation:
Conduction is relevant to heat transfer through solids; (k is a material property known as thermal conductivity (kW/mK ) and l is the distance (m) over which the temperature falls from T1 to T2 (in degrees Kelvin). Convection in this context refers to the transfer of heat from a fluid (in this case, air, flames or fire products) to a surface (solid or liquid); h is the convective heat transfer coefficient kW/m2K) and depends on the configuration of the surface and nature of the flow of fluid past that surface. Radiation is similar to visible light (but with a longer wavelength) and requires no intervening medium (it can traverse a vacuum); £` is the emissivity (efficiency by which a surface can radiate), £m is the Stefan-Boltzman constant (56.7 x 10-12 kW/m2K4). Thermal radiation travels at the speed of light (3 x 108 m/s) and an intervening solid object will cast a shadow.
NEW QUESTION # 48
How often should an electric fire pump be inspected and tested, and for how long should it run during testing?
- A. Inspected and testes monthly, run for 30 minutes
- B. Inspected and tested weekly, run for 30 minutes
- C. Inspected and tested weekly, run for 10 minutes
- D. Inspected and tested monthly, run for 10 minutes
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 49
Existing Board and Care Facilities classify the residents based on all of the following evacuation capabilities EXCEPT.
- A. impractical
- B. prompt
- C. normal
- D. Slow
Answer: C
Explanation:
Evacuation Capability. The ability of occupants, residents, and staff as a group either to evacuate a building or to relocate from the point of occupancy to a point of safety.
Impractical Evacuation Capability. The inability of a group to reliably move to a point of safety in a timely manner.
Prompt Evacuation Capability. The ability of a group to move reliably to a point of safety in a timely manner that is equivalent to the capacity of a household in the general population.
Slow Evacuation Capability. The ability of a group to move reliably to a point of safety in a timely manner, but not as rapidly as members of a household in the general population.
NEW QUESTION # 50
What is the travel distance limit for an unsprinklered new educational occupancy?
- A. 75 ft. (23 m)
- B. 175 ft. (53 m)
- C. 150 ft. (45 m)
- D. 200 ft. (61 m)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 51
The three primary mechanisms for conducting legally valid scene investigations are exigent circumstances, a search warrant, or:
- A. statutory authorization
- B. investigator qualifications
- C. permission of the owner
- D. reasonable time frame
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 52
NFPA 10 specifies that an extinguisher with a gross weight not exceeding 40 lb (18 kg) should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than;
- A. 4 ft (1.3 m) above the floor
- B. 3 ft (1 m) above the floor
- C. 5 ft (1.5 m) above the floor
- D. 3 . ft (1.1 m) above the floor
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 53
The ignition test method that exposes the specimen to a known heat flux from a tungsten-quartz heater is referred to as a
- A. lateral ignition apparatus.
- B. fire propagation apparatus.
- C. cone calorimeter.
- D. intermediate-scale calorimeter.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The cone calorimeter is an ignition test method that exposes the specimen to a known heat flux from a tungsten-quartz heater. The cone calorimeter measures the heat release rate, mass loss rate, smoke production, and other parameters of the specimen during the test. The cone calorimeter is widely used to evaluate the flammability and fire behavior of materials and products.References:
NFPA 557: Standard for Determination of Fire Loads for Use in Structural Fire Protection Design, 2017 Edition, Section 5.3.2.11 NFPA 556: Guide on Methods for Evaluating Fire Hazard to Occupants of Passenger Road Vehicles,
2019 Edition, Section 4.3.22
Fire Protection Handbook, 20th Edition, Volume 1, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2.23
NEW QUESTION # 54
The minimum residual pressure for a municipal water supply, according to the American Water Works Association (AWWA), defines the required fire flow at:
- A. 25 psi (172 kPa).
- B. 20 psi (138 kPA).
- C. 15 psi (103 kPa).
- D. 10 psi (69 kPa).
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which dry agent is considered twice as effective as ordinary sodium bicarbonate-based dry chemical?
- A. Lithium chloride
- B. Potassium sulfide
- C. Monoammonium phosphate
- D. Potassium bicarbonate
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 56
What is the maximum allowable quantity per control area for a nonliquified oxidizing gas stored in a gas cabinet in an unsprinklered area?
- A. 1000 ft3 (28 m3)
- B. 3000 ft3 (85 m3)
- C. 1500 ft3 (43 m3)
- D. 2000 ft3 (56 m3)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to NFPA 400, Table 5.2.1.1.3, the maximum allowable quantity (MAQ) of a nonliquified oxidizing gas per control area in an unsprinklered area is 2000 ft3 (56 m3) when stored in a gas cabinet. This quantity can be increased by 100% if the area is sprinklered or by 300% if the area is also provided with a gas detection system. A gas cabinet is a ventilated enclosure for the storage of one or more compressed gas containers that provides a method of control for potential leakage or fire exposure hazards [NFPA 400,
3.3.32].References:NFPA 400, Table 5.2.1.1.3;NFPA 400, 3.3.32;NFPA 400, 5.2.1.1.3.1;NFPA 400,
5.2.1.1.3.2.
NEW QUESTION # 57
For wet-pipe automatic sprinkler systems, the only proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device is to open the
- A. valve at the inspector's test connection.
- B. check valve from the city connection.
- C. alarm test by-pass valve at the system's main riser.
- D. main (2 in. diameter) drain.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
valve at the inspector's test connection.
For wet-pipe automatic sprinkler systems, the only proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device is to open the valve at the inspector's test connection. This is a small valve that is located at the end of a pipe that is connected to the sprinkler system, usually at the most remote or highest point. The inspector's test connection simulates the flow of a single sprinkler head and activates the vane-type water flow switch, which in turn triggers the fire alarm panel and the external alarm devices.Opening the valve at the inspector's test connection also allows the water to drain from the system, preventing corrosion and freezing1234 Opening the main (2 in. diameter) drain is not a proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device, because it does not create enough flow to activate the switch. The main drain is used to drain the entire sprinkler system for maintenance or repair purposes, and it is usually located at the main riser or the fire department connection.Opening the main drain may also cause a pressure drop in the system, which could affect the performance of the sprinklers1234 Opening the alarm test by-pass valve at the system's main riser is not a proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device, because it does not simulate the actual flow of a sprinkler head.
The alarm test by-pass valve is used to test the operation of the external alarm devices, such as the water motor gong or the electric bell, without activating the fire alarm panel. The alarm test by-pass valve is usually located near the alarm check valve or the water flow switch, and it allows water to flow through a small orifice to the alarm devices.Opening the alarm test by-pass valve does not create enough flow to activate the vane-type water flow switch1234 Opening the check valve from the city connection is not a proper way to test the operation of a vane-type water flow alarm initiating device, because it does not create any flow in the sprinkler system. The check valve from the city connection is used to prevent the backflow of water from the sprinkler system to the city water supply, and it is usually located at the fire department connection or the main riser.Opening the check valve from the city connection does not affect the water flow in the sprinkler system, and it does not activate the vane-type water flow switch1234 References:
Fire Sprinkler Flow Switch & Tamper Switch Inspection & Maintenance3
Sprinkler System Water Flow Device Testing - ORR Protection2
VSR-AT Auto-Test Waterflow Alarm Switch | Potter Electric4
WFDNA Series Vane-type Waterflow Detectors - Steel Fire Equipment5
NEW QUESTION # 58
What gas is liberated when magnesium shavings or chips come in contact with water?
- A. Acetylene
- B. Chlorine
- C. Hydrogen
- D. Oxygen
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is the correct UL classification of roof covering that include criteria for resistance to ignition?
- A. Option B
- B. Option A
- C. Option C
- D. Option D
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 60
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