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CompTIA CNX-001 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 40
A customer asks a MSP to propose a ZTA design for its globally distributed remote workforce. Given the following requirements:
Authentication should be provided through the customer's SAML identity provider.
Access should not be allowed from countries where the business does not operate.
Secondary authentication should be added to the workflow to allow for passkeys.
Changes to the user's device posture and hygiene should require reauthentication into the network.
Access to the network should only be allowed to originate from corporate-owned devices.
Which of the following solutions should the MSP recommend to meet the requirements?
- A. Chain the existing identity provider to a new SAML.
Require the use of time-based one-time passcode hardware tokens.
Enable debug logging on the VPN clients by default.
Disconnect users from the network only if their IP address changes. - B. Enforce posture assessment only during the initial network log-on.
Implement RADIUS for SSO.
Restrict access from all non-U.S. IP addresses.
Configure a BYOD access policy.
Disable auditing for remote access. - C. Enforce certificate-based authentication.
Permit unauthenticated remote connectivity only from corporate IP addresses.
Enable geofencing.
Use cookie-based session tokens that do not expire for remembering user log-ins.
Increase RADIUS server timeouts. - D. Configure geolocation settings to block certain IP addresses.
Enforce MFA.
Federate the solution via SSO.
Enable continuous access policies on the WireGuard tunnel.
Create a trusted endpoints policy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Federate the solution via SSO ensures authentication is handled by the customer's SAML identity provider.
Enforce MFA supports secondary authentication with passkeys.
Configure geolocation settings to block certain IP addresses prevents access from unauthorized countries.
Enable continuous access policies on the WireGuard tunnel forces re-authentication whenever device posture or hygiene changes.
Create a trusted endpoints policy restricts access to corporate-owned devices only.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A network architect needs to design a solution to ensure every cloud environment network is built to the same baseline. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use automated deployment.
Easily update multiple environments.
Share code with a community of practice.
Which of the following are the best solutions? (Choose two.)
- A. CI/CD pipelines
- B. Deployment guides
- C. Public code repository
- D. Private code repository
- E. Automated image deployment
- F. Deployment runbooks
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
CI/CD pipelines: Automate the provisioning and configuration of network baselines across all environments, and make it easy to roll out updates consistently.
Public code repository: Enables your community of practice to collaborate, review, and contribute to shared IaC modules and templates, while making updates discoverable and reusable.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A network architect is working on a physical network design template for a small education institution's satellite campus that is not yet built. The new campus location will consist of two small buildings with classrooms, one screening room with audiovisual equipment, and 200 seats for students. Which of the following enterprise network designs should the architect suggest?
- A. Dual-layer
- B. Three-tier
- C. Collapsed core
- D. Hybrid
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a small satellite campus with limited buildings and user density, a collapsed-core (two-tier) design combines the core and distribution layers into a single set of switches. This minimizes hardware, simplifies management, and still provides the necessary segmentation and resiliency for the classrooms, screening room, and student seating areas.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A cloud architect must recommend an architecture approach for a new medical application that requires the lowest downtime possible. Which of the following is the best application deployment strategy given the high- availability requirement?
- A. Four different availability zones using an active-passive topology in a single region
- B. Two different availability zones (per region) using an active-passive topology in two different regions
- C. Two different availability zones (per region) using an active-active topology in two different regions
- D. Four different availability zones using an active-active topology in a single region
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Using an active-active deployment across two regions with at least two Availability Zones (AZs) each provides the highest level of fault tolerance and geographic redundancy. This ensures continuity even if an entire region or multiple zones become unavailable. In regulated sectors such as healthcare, this meets strict availability and disaster recovery requirements.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "High Availability and Multi- Region Design":
"Active-active configurations across multiple regions and availability zones maximize uptime and ensure failover in the event of localized or regional failures." Other options:
* B. Active-passive introduces delays in failover.
* C. Active-active in one region offers no geographic redundancy.
* D. Active-passive in two regions is slower and less efficient during failover.
NEW QUESTION # 44
An administrator logged in to a cloud account on a shared machine but forgot to log out after the session ended. Which of the following types of security threats does this action pose?
- A. On-path attack
- B. Zero-day
- C. IP spoofing
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Failing to log out of a privileged session on a shared device leaves that session accessible to the next user, potentially granting unauthorized access to administrative functions. This scenario aligns with privilege escalation, where an individual gains access to higher-level permissions than they are authorized to have.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Access Control and Security Threats":
"Privilege escalation occurs when a user gains elevated access rights, often due to misconfigurations or negligence, such as unattended administrative sessions." Other options:
* A. IP spoofing involves falsifying source IP addresses.
* B. Zero-day refers to unknown software vulnerabilities.
* C. On-path attacks involve intercepting traffic, not session misuse on local devices.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A network administrator must connect a remote building at a manufacturing plant to the main building via a wireless connection. Which of the following should the administrator choose to get the greatest possible range from the wireless connection? (Choose two.)
- A. Omnidirectional antenna
- B. Built-in antenna
- C. Patch antenna
- D. 5GHz
- E. 2.4GHz
- F. 6GHz
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
2.4GHz has longer range and better wall penetration than higher frequencies like 5GHz or 6GHz.A patch antenna (a type of directional antenna) focuses the signal in one direction, greatly improving range and reliability over long distances between buildings.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Wireless Deployment and Antenna Selection":
"2.4GHz offers extended range over 5GHz. Directional antennas such as patch antennas concentrate signals toward a target, improving distance communication." Other options:
* B & C. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but shorter range.
* D. Omnidirectional antennas spread signal in all directions, not ideal for point-to-point.
* F. Built-in antennas are generally low gain and insufficient for building-to-building links.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A company is experiencing multiple switch failures. The network analyst discovers the following:
* Network recovery time is unacceptable and occurs after the shutdown of some switches.
* Some loops were detected in the network.
* No broadcast storm was detected.
Which of the following is the most cost-effective solution?
- A. Implement tagging.
- B. Add a new Layer 3 switch.
- C. Implement STP.
- D. Add multiple VLANs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that prevents loop conditions in redundant switch topologies. It automatically disables redundant links in a controlled way, allowing one active path at a time.
When a switch fails, STP recalculates and activates an alternate path. In this case, loops are detected, but no broadcast storms occurred, indicating that STP is not in place or not configured properly. Implementing STP is a low-cost and effective solution to resolve these issues.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Switching Technologies and Loop Prevention":
"STP prevents switching loops by dynamically identifying and disabling redundant paths. When a link failure occurs, STP re-converges to restore network connectivity."
"STP is an essential protocol in redundant Layer 2 topologies to avoid broadcast and loop issues." Other options:
* A. A Layer 3 switch adds routing functionality but does not prevent Layer 2 loops.
* B. VLANs segment broadcast domains but do not inherently prevent physical loops.
* D. Tagging (e.g., VLAN tagging) helps with segmentation but not with loop prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A network engineer needs to implement a cloud-native solution. The solution must allow the recording of network conversation metadata of the host and appliances attached to a VPC. Which of the following will accomplish these goals with the least effort?
- A. Configuring SNMP traps
- B. Installing a cloud monitoring agent
- C. Implementing QoS network tagging
- D. Enabling network flow
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Network flow logging (e.g., AWS VPC Flow Logs, Azure NSG Flow Logs, or GCP VPC Flow Logs) is a cloud-native feature that records metadata about network conversations, including source and destination IPs, ports, and traffic volume. It does not capture payloads but provides detailed flow-level insight without requiring agents or intrusive configuration changes, making it the most efficient and least effort solution.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Cloud-native Network Monitoring":
"Network flow logging provides metadata about traffic within cloud VPCs and is used for visibility, troubleshooting, and security auditing without packet inspection." Other options:
* B. SNMP traps monitor device health, not traffic flows.
* C. QoS tagging controls traffic priority but doesn't log flows.
* D. Monitoring agents collect system-level metrics and logs, but require installation and configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A network architect must ensure only certain departments can access specific resources while on premises.
Those same users cannot be allowed to access those resources once they have left campus. Which of the following would ensure access is provided according to these requirements?
- A. Implementing a PKI-based authentication system to ensure access
- B. Configuring geofencing with the IPs of the resources
- C. Configuring UEBA to monitor all access to those resources during non-business hours
- D. Enabling MFA for only those users within the departments needing access
Answer: B
Explanation:
By defining an IP-based geofence around the on-premises network addresses where those resources reside, you ensure that only users connecting from inside the campus IP ranges can reach them. As soon as the same users leave that network (and thus fall outside the geofenced IP block), access is automatically denied.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A network administrator recently deployed new Wi-Fi 6E access points in an office and enabled 6GHz coverage. Users report that when they are connected to the new 6GHz SSID, the performance is worse than the 5GHz SSID. The network administrator suspects that there is a source of 6GHz interference in the office.
Using the troubleshooting methodology, which of the following actions should the network administrator do next?
- A. Change the channels being used by the 6GHz radios in the APs.
- B. Use a spectrum analyzer and check the 6GHz spectrum.
- C. Test to see if the changes have improved network performance.
- D. Document the list of channels that are experiencing interference.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Using a spectrum analyzer to inspect the 6GHz frequency range allows the administrator to confirm the presence and source of interference. This step aligns with the "identify the problem" phase of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. Before making changes or documenting channels, the administrator must validate whether interference exists and collect diagnostic data.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Troubleshooting Methodology and Wireless Interference":
"Spectrum analyzers provide a visual representation of frequency usage and interference in wireless bands, allowing administrators to isolate the root cause of degraded performance before implementing corrective actions." Other options:
* A. Testing performance (Step 5 in the methodology) comes after identifying and resolving the issue.
* C. Documentation is performed during the final step of troubleshooting.
* D. Changing channels without evidence may worsen interference if the problem is not confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 50
An organization has centralized logging capability at the on-premises data center and wants a solution that can consolidate logging from deployed cloud workloads. The organization would like to automate the detection and alerting mechanism. Which of the following best meets the requirements?
- A. Data lake
- B. Syslog
- C. SIEM
- D. IDS/IPS
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management system ingests and normalizes logs from on-premises and cloud sources, applies automated correlation rules for detection, and issues alerts, exactly matching the need for centralized logging, analysis, and automated notification.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A company is expanding its network and needs to ensure improved stability and reliability. The proposed solution must fulfill the following requirements:
* Detection and prevention of network loops
* Automatic configuration of ports
* Standard protocol (not proprietary)
Which of the following protocols is the most appropriate?
- A. STP
- B. SIP
- C. RTSP
- D. BGP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a Layer 2 standard protocol that prevents switching loops in Ethernet networks by creating a loop-free logical topology. It can automatically block and unblock redundant paths based on network changes, ensuring reliability and avoiding broadcast storms.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Ethernet Loop Prevention and Switching Protocols":
"STP is a standard Layer 2 protocol used to detect and prevent network loops, enhancing network stability in switched topologies." Other options:
* B. SIP is a signaling protocol used in VoIP.
* C. RTSP is for media streaming control.
* D. BGP is a routing protocol, not for Layer 2 loop prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A network architect is designing a solution to place network core equipment in a rack inside a data center.
This equipment is crucial to the enterprise and must be as secure as possible to minimize the chance that anyone could connect directly to the network core. The current security setup is:
* In a locked building that requires sign in with a guard and identification check.
* In a locked data center accessible by a proximity badge and fingerprint scanner.
* In a locked cabinet that requires the security guard to call the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to get permission to provide the key.
Which of the following additional measures should the architect recommend to make this equipment more secure?
- A. Require anyone entering the data center for any reason to undergo a background check.
- B. Have the CISO accompany any network engineer that needs to do work in this cabinet.
- C. Make all engineers with access to the data center sign a statement of work.
- D. Set up a video surveillance system that has cameras focused on the cabinet.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Adding video surveillance that is focused on the cabinet enhances physical security by providing monitoring, deterrence, and forensic evidence in case of unauthorized access. Video surveillance complements existing layered access controls and is a recognized best practice for protecting high-value network assets.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Physical Security Controls":
"Video surveillance provides 24/7 monitoring and records of physical access to critical infrastructure, supporting audit and incident investigation processes." Other options:
* A. A statement of work is administrative and does not enhance physical security.
* C. CISO accompaniment is impractical and not scalable.
* D. Background checks are useful but are generally a prerequisite and not a real-time security control.
NEW QUESTION # 53
You are designing a campus network with a three-tier hierarchy and need to ensure secure connectivity between locations and traveling employees.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the command output by clicking on the server, laptops, and workstations on the network.
Use the drop-down menus to determine the appropriate technology and label for each layer on the diagram.
Options may only be used once.
Click on the magnifying glass to make additional configuration changes.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 54
An organization with an on-premises data center is adopting additional cloud-based solutions. The organization wants to keep communication secure between remote employees' devices and workloads. Which of the following ZTA featuresbestachieves this goal?
- A. Secure service edge
- B. Cloud access security broker
- C. Principle of least privilege
- D. Identity as the perimeter
Answer: D
Explanation:
Shifting to "identity as the perimeter" means that each remote user and device's identity (and context) becomes the basis for granting secure, encrypted access directly to workloads, regardless of the underlying network, ensuring communications are authenticated and authorized per-session.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A company is expanding operations and opening a new facility. The executive leadership team decides to purchase an insurance policy that will cover the cost of rebuilding the facility in case of a natural disaster.
Which of the following describes the team's decision?
- A. Memorandum of understanding
- B. Risk transference
- C. Disaster recovery
- D. Business continuity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Risk transference is a risk management strategy in which the financial impact of a risk is shifted to a third party, such as an insurance company. In this scenario, the purchase of an insurance policy to cover potential damage or loss from a natural disaster is an example of transferring risk, not avoiding, mitigating, or accepting it.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide under "Risk Management Concepts":
"Risk transference involves moving the responsibility or financial burden of a risk to a third party, often through the purchase of insurance or third-party service agreements." This approach is contrasted with mitigation (reducing risk), acceptance (living with the risk), or avoidance (eliminating the risk).
NEW QUESTION # 56
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